pronouns:

John 3:11 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, We speak that we do know, and testify that we have seen; and ye receive not our witness.

First, Jesus says, "I", speaking of himself - first person singular

Then he says, "thee", speaking of Nicodemus - second person singular

Later in the line, Jesus says, "ye" - second person plural - speaking of those in Israel who are rejecting his word?

But, then Jesus says, "we", three times, and says, "our", once - first person plural.

In his use of the word, "we", is Jesus speaking of himself and John the Baptist?

Or is Jesus using the word, "we", similar to how he uses it, close to three years later, in the upper room?

John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.