In Daniel chapters 9 and 11 it speaks of the covenant seven times.

Yet I've been taught over the years, that in Daniel 9:27, the covenant suddenly means something else.

I was taught that in Daniel 9:27, and only in that line, it really means "a firm military agreement".

How do they come up with that, by simply reading the word of God?

Daniel 9:4 And I prayed unto the LORD my God, and made my confession, and said, O Lord, the great and dreadful God, keeping the covenant and mercy to them that love him, and to them that keep his commandments;

 12 And he hath confirmed his words, which he spake against us, and against our judges that judged us, by bringing upon us a great evil: for under the whole heaven hath not been done as hath been done upon Jerusalem.

 27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

Daniel 11:22 And with the arms of a flood shall they be overflown from before him, and shall be broken; yea, also the prince of the covenant.

 28 Then shall he return into his land with great riches; and his heart shall be against the holy covenant; and he shall do exploits, and return to his own land.

 30 For the ships of Chittim shall come against him: therefore he shall be grieved, and return, and have indignation against the holy covenant: so shall he do; he shall even return, and have intelligence with them that forsake the holy covenant.

 32 And such as do wickedly against the covenant shall he corrupt by flatteries: but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.

All the other six times it seems to be speaking of the LORD's covenant with Israel.

So why would the same word mean something else suddenly in line 27 of chapter 9?

Some have tried to overwhelm the conversation by saying something like,"But in the Hebrew in means something else".

Sadly, many back off when they hear the words, "in the Hebrew", because they do not read Hebrew.

We somehow greatly fear those who say that they do.

Why?

It is because we somehow think that those who know Hebrew must understand the word of God far greater than anyone else.

The word of God is understood by the common man, not only the most educated.

That is seen in the following:

Luke 10:21 In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight.

The lines from Daniel, copied above, are from the word of God, and we can understand those words.

Yet if they insist that they are sure that the Hebrew teaches differently, then why wouldn't the Strong's numbers also?

The Strong's number used in these seven instances is 1285, not a different number for that in 9:27.

Anyway, it looks like the same covenant is confirmed in 9:27, not a firm military agreement.

That would mean that the LORD's covenant is confirmed for that last seven years.

But then that covenant is stopped in the middle, so that in the last 3½ years, the sacrifices have ceased.

Also, the abomination of desolation happens.

It all seems to be related to the LORD's covenant with Israel, i.e. the sacrifices and oblations, rather than a military agreement.

Or am I a heretic for even asking this?