Lewis,

I certainly would not agree that the KJV has a flawed interpretation of 2 Thessalonians 2:3.  Even when interpreted as ‘departure’ or ‘departing’ in this case, it is in reference to departing the faith in the latter times. 

"[1] Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall DEPART from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;" - 1Timothy 4:1 KJV

Whichever English word is used, the fact is the Textus Receptus, from which both the KJV and the Tyndale Bibles were interpreted from, interprets the Greek word ‘apostasia’ (Latin spelling).  The etymology of our modern English word ‘apostasy’, the original Greek intent was to express a DEFECTION or REVOLT.  It was then and it is still now a departure from TRUTH.  Apostasy is a renunciation of one’s belief and specifically, the renunciation of one’s religion or faith.  Apostasia (Strong’s G646) is the same as apostasion (G647), just the feminine derivation.  Apostasion means DIVORCEMENT or REPUDIATION.  Both G646 and G647 are derivations of aphistemi (G868) which combines ‘apo’ (G575) meaning SEPARATION + ‘histemi’ (G2476) meaning TO STAND.  Aphistemi then means to desert, fall away or SEPARATING ONES SELF FROM THE STAND.

The actual Greek word used in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 apostasia is only used one other time in the Bible (Acts 21:21) and is interpreted in the KJV as FORSAKE.  Its use is referencing the Jews being taught to FORSAKE the laws and customs of Moses, which is APOSTASY to the Jews.

"[21] And they are informed of thee,  that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to FORSAKE Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise [their] children, neither to walk after the customs." - Act 21:21 KJV

The passage in 1st Timothy 4:1 expresses that in the latter days some will DEPART from the FAITH.  The word here DEPART, aphistemi (G868) is the word by which apostasia is derived.  FAITH is pistis (G4102).  DEPART the FAITH aphistemi+pistis = APOSTASIA = the FALLING AWAY. 

Whether you consult Thayer’s Lexicon, Strong’s Dictionary and Concordance, Bible Study Tools.com, Blue Letter Bible, Liddell and Scott’s ‘A Greek-English Lexicon’ or studybible.info, the first definition of the KJV ‘FALLING AWAY’ is ALWAYS the same:  It is a defection or revolt, especially in a religious sense, a REBELLION AGAINST GOD, FORSAKING the FAITH and in short APOSTASY.  The word CANNOT be construed to IMPLY the RAPTURE OF THE CHURCH.  It is the event which 1^st Timothy 4 is speaking about.

I would be very careful.  Your latitude with God’s word, as paraphrasing that passage is a DEPARTURE from the actual TRUTH.  Where does vs. 4 say ‘newly rebuilt’?

In Christ,

Kevin Heckle